
The only problem is that this data doesn't make sense. As Agmo & Ellingsen (2003) writes "Under the condition that the population consists of 50% of each sex..." (which they established is largely the case) "...the number of partners must inevitably be exactly the same for men and women."
So we don't need 'just so' theories about why men have more sex (with women) than women have (with men)--because that flat out cannot have happened.
Of course there are lots of theories to be made about how they misremember, differently categorise and flat out lie about it... but that's a whole 'nother thing.
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